Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 00:09
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why do I sweat a great deal while exercising the same on some days and not so much on others?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.